By definition, the set D={ x : disadvantaged(x) == true } contains anyone who is "systematically marginalized" (assuming that being "systematically marginalized" is actually a disadvantage).
Concretely, are you saying my set D does not contain Sasha Obama, but it should?
Or another example - my girlfriend is an upper middle class black woman from a majority black country. The minute she steps off a plane in the US, will she suddenly become more deserving of assistance than the white son of a single mother who earned $11,000/year household income?
If you are determined to slice by race, the answer is yes. Let M represent either Sasha Obama or my girlfriend.
Your assertions about racial averages takes the following form:
1. mean(M,N,O) < mean(U,V,W)
2. M > U
3. ???
4. Therefore, we should preferentially support M over U, N over V, etc.
Step 3 is where I'm confused. Step 3 is a normative principle - you cannot derive a "should" conclusion from a fact without one. What is that principle?
Look, we're not writing a philosophy paper or doing set theory here...There are reasons why this shit is set up like it is.
How is this not a philosophical question? I'm sure there are reasons why "shit is set up like it is" - "tribal politics" fits the facts well. But I'm hoping for a more interesting explanation than that.
And I'm asking because I'm honestly interested. A lot of smart people seem to buy into stuff like this, and I try to understand it due to Chesterton's Fence.