I am surprised by how often I hear this example. Not because people can't define the graph of a function, but because in usual set theoretic terms[1] a function and its graph are the same thing. They are both the set of points (x, f(x)) where x ranges over the domain of f. This is an equivalence that isn't even made by most mathematicians, as they usually denote the graph a function as Γ(f), implying it is different from f itself as a function. Of course they know the equivalence, but prefer to separate the objects notationally for clarity's sake.
[1]: I'm ignoring the notion of a function in category theory, since CS students who are taught math are primarily taught naive set theory, not category theory. Of course, when you aren't working in a category of sets then the graph of a function doesn't make sense, I think.