"With increased firearm regulations you find an increase in violent crime."

Is there some control for the possibility that those areas enacted firearm regulations due to already having a lot of violent crime?

Edit: It is addressed in the linked to document:

"But the more plausible explanation for many nations having widespread gun ownership with low violence is that these nations never had high murder and violence rates and so never had occasion to enact severe anti‐gun laws. On the other hand, in nations that have ex‐perienced high and rising violent crime rates, the legislative reaction has generally been to enact increasingly severe antigun laws" - (Bottom of Pg. 672)