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0 pointsjoseda-hg3mo ago0 comments

I might be interpreting wrong, but doesn't IPv6 also have a "implicit bridge" for IPv4?

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3 comments · 2 top-level

billpg3mo ago· 1 in thread

If it does that's great, but why couldn't I connect to IPv6-only services back when my ISP was IPv4 only?

joseda-hgOP3mo ago

It's one way, v6 is aware of v4, but not the other way around

pocksuppet3mo ago

It's not automatic, there were many proposed and utilized mechanisms for autodetecting translation servers and so on. By now though, if you want IPv6, you order real IPv6, and don't need some translation.

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