undefined | Better HN

0 pointsty68531y ago0 comments

You're literally talking about moving violence enforced slavery to something closer to voluntary trade of labor. That's far from exclusively Marxian, even most brands of ancapism advocate such philosophy.

0 comments

Hasu1y ago

Yes, it's also a wealth transfer, and slaveholders (other than in DC) were not compensated.

If you're ignoring that huge economic event in your analysis of the economics of the latter half of the 19th century, trying to replicate it today is going to be very rough.

Given your other replies in this thread, you're not interested in arguing honestly and I'm not going to continue engaging.

ty6853OP1y ago

The involuntary wealth transfer of slavery was from slaves to the rich, not the other way around. Framing it as the slaves taking from the rich when they stopped being slaves by no longer providing free labor is monumentally disingenuous, and I don't think you really believe that.

j / k navigate · click thread line to collapse