It is rare for poor people in rich countries to starve to death, but missing meals and going through periods of hunger is unfortunately not uncommon at all.

Counterpoint: I've visited the US. Poor children go hungry there, at least in WV. I've talked with a teacher who baked white rice everyday to give it to 3 children in her class, since they couldn't afford the school's restaurant and didn't had lunch.

In a recent study by the USDA, Household Food Security in the United States in 2022[1], it is estimated that "17.0 million house-holds were food insecure" (meaning that "they had difficulty at some time during the year providing enough food for all their members because of a lack of resources") and "5.1 percent of U.S. households (6.8 million households) had very low food security" (meaning "food intake of some household members was reduced, and normal eating patterns were disrupted at times during the year because of limited resources").

That's 17 million HOUSEHOLDS that struggled to provide food and 6.8 million HOUSEHOLDS that had to skip meals. I wouldn't call that rare.

[1] https://www.ers.usda.gov/publications/pub-details/?pubid=107...

>In rich countries it is rare for poor people to go hungry because food is cheap compared to median income

People say this as if we don't have direct statistics about how hungry poor americans are.

Maybe your ASSERTION that poor people should have enough food because "it's cheap" isn't right and you should investigate that.

OP says:

"Some folks did a study with 900 people. They found the same correlation that the original study did. But when they controlled for household income, they found most of the correlation disappeared."

So original study didn't control for income. If the original study claimed it across all incomes, and then it mostly went away when others controlled for income, then the delayed gratification strong correlation wasn't really for all incomes, right?

Could you list some specifics because I cannot follow you at all