> When someone builds a house and keeps it for themselves, occupied or not, that is "one less demand" for a different house. Not even banks want to own an infinite number of houses
Not necessarily. Are you saying that if I demand to have $1 and keep it for myself, that is 1 less demand I have for different dollars? Seems to me I can still have demand for more dollars. In practice, there may be a point where I don't have demand for more dollars, but I don't see why demand could be unlimited. Are you implying prices have a theoretical maximum? Like $1000000000000000 and once that limit is reached, prices could never go above that?
> What difference does that make? Supply and demand says nothing about competitive free markets. Hell, supply and demand is just as applicable to socialist command economies and everything else you can imagine. Supply and demand is even observable in animal populations. It is considered a law, and not in the legal sense, for good reason
The difference matters when it comes to determining prices. Again, when it comes to prices, the law only holds true under certain conditions: competitive free market conditions. If the economic environment is not a free market, supply and demand are not influential factors when it comes to prices. We already discussed this above. In socialist economic systems, the government typically sets commodity prices regardless of the supply or demand conditions. In which case, if the price set by the socialist economic system (or monopoly) is higher than the price determined by what supply/demand for it really is, it is essentially being hoarded, and thus not for sale.
I am definitely not wrong on this [1][2].
[1] - http://ingrimayne.com/econ/DemandSupply/SD_2.html#:~:text=Su....
[2] - https://www.investopedia.com/articles/economics/11/intro-sup...