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0 pointsBlueTemplar2y ago0 comments

Python does follow the convention, but what I am wondering now is why did FORTRAN break it ?

0 comments

Fortran is old – 1958 onwards. It has precedence here, though at what point it separated the two behaviours into mod and modulo functions I don’t know.

Edit: From what I can tell, standardised in Fortran 90, presumably older than that.

BlueTemplarOP2y ago

My point is that Fortran doesn't have precedence on math, see this comment by Austin Feller :

http://python-history.blogspot.com/2010/08/why-pythons-integ...

wombatpm2y ago

Maybe because FORTRAN arrays index from 1 by default?

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