> For example, they added a lot of great JavaScript features, cognizant of the ton of online and semi-offline apps that are written in JavaScript. In contrast, Intel attempts to optimize a chip simultaneously for laptops, desktops, and servers, leading poorly optimizations for laptops.
Now there is a JS feature in the M1. It's the FJCVTZS instruction "Floating-point Javascript Convert to Signed fixed-point, rounding toward Zero" which ensures this conversion follows the JS specification. [1]
And this does indeed improve JS performance for Arm CPUs. But why does JS behave this way? Because it was specified to follow what x86 does!
So to say that 'M1 is optimised for JS but x86 isn't etc' is just plain wrong.
Also: - Apple didn't do it Arm did. - It has nothing whatsoever to do with memory management.
[1] https://stackoverflow.com/questions/50966676/why-do-arm-chip...