It's not the amendment that it defines though. It is defining members of a militia. Can the government not assign subjects to a militia? That is what this code does. Are you saying this is an illegal militia? Or not a militia at all? US Judges yield to chevron deference all the time including ATF's interpretations on restriction of 2A, why would they not respect US code to be able to define a militia?
The right of "the people" to keep and bear arms is not interpretation. It doesn't say right of the militia it says right of the people. It is not interpretation to note the right was not explicitly assigned to the militia.
Re "the people" as collective right: Does the right of the people to be secure in their persons (4th) or to petition their government (1st) not individual rights? Do I have to be a part of the militia or collective to assert 4th and 1st amendment rights?