In this example, if you steal a piece of hardware with embedded software on it, it seems unlikely that you're licensed to use that piece of software.
(1) Buy an alarm clock with an embedded chip
(2) Contained in the packaging was a link to a license agreement. You never read it and certainly didn't agree to it.
(3) A year later, weekday alarms are remotely disabled because you've used up your free trial. The license specifies $3/mo as the rate to continue being woken up on weekdays.
Courts are already not upholding a lot of this "reading this ToS constitutes agreement to all future versions" bullshit in modern software, and I doubt they'd be friendly to the idea that somebody can be beholden to a contract they had no good reason to even know about.
In your scenario, the buyer wouldn't have a contract other than they bought the clock and it was implied to work as a clock. You could have a claim for breaking the device, but the first-sale doctrine gives you copyright protection regardless of what you do to the clock.
In the article, thieves have no contract, so they have no right to anything to do with the devices.
What law is this based on? If you say copyright law, then how can I be in violation if I have not made a copy? If you say contract law, arguing that the license is a form of contract, then how can I be bound by it if I have not signed it, agreed to it, or even read it?
But why do I have to accept a license? I already have a copy of the software; what law says I can’t run the copy I have?