if your analysis produces an effect when fed uniform random data, then yes, no need to perform experiments or studies, because all your results are null. right?
so the hypothesis would be something like "the analysis shows a relationship between the two variables" and the null hypothesis would be something like "the analysis shows a relationship between two uniform random variables" and in this case that null is shown and accepted because no such relationship exists by definition. right? (unless it's like, "they have the same entropy", or something)
i'm very rusty with this stuff, so clarification would be much appreciated!
