No, the author is right. He says that barter does not create market value which is true. Barter may or may not lead to a better allocation of goods, in terms of exchange efficiency, but the market value (i.e. price) of those goods and the amount of goods remains unchanged.
For the record, the post you are responding to (and many others sharing similar criticism) was made before I changed "no value" to "no market value" (this edit is called out in a footnote).
