> if, say, Google steals your bike that would be purely economic damage. Surely the UK legal system would still punish that...!?
Yes, they would. This is because there is a specific Act of Parliament known as the Torts (Interference with Goods) Act 1977 which specifically addresses the tort of "trespass to goods" also known as "wrongful interference with goods".
You would need to prove that Google "deliberately" interfered with your bike, on the balance of probabilities. However, Google would have two defences:
- Consent (e.g. you trespass on to their land, and they clamp or detain your bike - you are seen as consenting to the consequences of your trespass, namely the clamping, so cannot argue wrongful interference with goods)
- Distress damage feasant (e.g. you trespass on to their land, Google is entitled to seize and detain any property you brought with you until you leave, or (if damage has been caused) until you pay for any damages).
There are no other specific defences to this tort, only general defences to a tort (such as limitation, illegality, etc.)
In your stated case, assuming you proved the tort on the balance of probabilities, you'd be entitled to damages per Section 3 of the Act.