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0 pointssrtjstjsj5y ago0 comments

No evidence is given about whether the bias is unconscious.

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2 comments · 1 top-level

shadowgovt5y ago· 1 in thread

I believe it can be inferred that it's not conscious, because if women were actually being hired intentionally at a 2 to 1 ratio, that would be an obvious violation of law against gender discrimination.

kofejnik5y ago

Doing "X" intentionally would be illegal, therefore it could be inferred that whoever did "X" wasn't doing it consciously.

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