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0 pointsasaddhamani5y ago0 comments

And by the way it's worded, I assume 146 is post-money.

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echelon5y ago· 1 in thread

I'm still learning all of these investment terms.

If the 146M is post-money, then they own (60/146M)%? If it's pre-money, (60/(60+146M))%?

Yes, that is correct.

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