I interpreted the OP as implying a strong relationship between the laws of physics and computation. It's trivial to assert that there is a relationship between the laws and physics and computation because there are computers.
But saying that the laws of physics specifically lend themselves to computers involves finding reasons that this may be so.
Yet if there is no inherent computational property in physical nature (like say that the laws actually reflect cellular automata, or are fully deterministic and are not nominal), then we ought to be skeptical that Turing Machines are somehow essential to physics or physical constraints, or that we should be surprised if Turing Machines are common.
Maybe Turing Machines are common just because the definition of a Turing Machine is syntactically weak.