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0 pointsjacquesm7y ago0 comments

Has there been a case before the EU high court yet where there was a meaningful discrepancy between a local version and another that was deemed to be leading?

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2 comments · 1 top-level

anoncake7y ago· 1 in thread

I've found an interesting text by the legal service of the European Commission that answers that question.

TLDR: That's why the EUCJ primarily relies on the intent of a law.

http://ec.europa.eu/dgs/legal_service/seminars/agjacobs_summ... ("How to interpret legislation which is equally authentic in twenty languages")

jacquesmOP7y ago

Thank you for digging that up! This also explains a couple of other things that I was wondering about.

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