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CapacitorSet8y ago· 3 in thread

It's not being used as a fallacy, since it's not part of an argument that proves a point.

I don't follow you. My interpretation was that OP said roughly, "I don't understand/approve of GDPR because of this and this." Child then responded by saying roughly, "but America does it too." Seems like the child was trying to imply that OP's claims/concerns are false because they are hypocritical.

orwin8y ago

Not really, he said in substance: "America do this, EU will not". Using this example to somehow gain a moral high ground.

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watwut8y ago

I think that child was saying that since America does that routinelly, Europe is entitled to do it too. Alternatively, may do it for strategical power reasons.

speakeron8y ago· 2 in thread

Tu quoque is not a logical fallacy. There's no logical step that's violated. It's an informal fallacy.

davesqueOP8y ago

Technically, yes. It's an informal logical fallacy. The point is that it's a pretty ineffective means of advancing the discussion.

hueving8y ago

Right FTA: it's an "informal logical fallacy.

orwin8y ago

But since the answer is no, is this still a fallacy?

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