In 1990, mothers spent about 10 times more than fathers. 20 years later, than number is less than half of that. Has the drastic effect of doubling the number of days that fathers spend on child care and cutting the days mothers spend by almost a third had any measurable effect on wages for women in general? That linked article below estimate that Sweden will have 50/50 childcare by 2040, so can we predict with data supported evidence that income differences between genders will be reduced to 0 by the same year? I doubt that, and I have not seen any numbers that points towards it.
