Skip to content
Better HN
Top
Best
Ask
Show
New
Jobs
Search
⌘K
0 points
curryhowardiso
10y ago
0 comments
Save
Share
Yes, absolutely - and another reason is that it forms a sort of "de facto precedent". Even though there isn't a USSC judgment, in future people will (hopefully) refer to "the time the DoJ tried to do X" and the theory is this is citation enough.
0 comments
2 comments · 1 top-level
top
newest
oldest
fergbrain
10y ago
· 1 in thread
This was District Court, not SCOTUS.
curryhowardiso
OP
10y ago
Yes, which is why I said "despite not having a SC precedent"?
j
/
k
navigate · click thread line to collapse